William Shakespeare wrote the play Macbeth, is this a moral play and is justice served in the end? Morality is still a big issue and is never really answered it’s just a matter of your opinion. Justice on the other hand is a whole different story if you view justice as being served in an eye for an eye way then it’s served but if you don’t then you will probably think that he got away with something.
Morality is a very controversial topic but one thing that everyone seems to agree on is that it is wrong to murder someone. Macbeth murders King Duncan. He murdered the king to make sure he would get the throne. The killing is immoral because he committed it for himself, compared to when he killed Macdonwald which was acceptable because Macdonwald was a traitor to Scotland. Macbeth himself said he had no good reason to kill Duncan, "...but only vaulting ambition..." (Act 1, sc. 7). Macbeth allows his wife to talk him into killing the king, but he had already considered the idea of killing Duncan in Act 1, sc. 4 when Duncan announces that his son, Malcolm, is the next heir to the throne. Macbeth says, "Stars hide your fires! Let not light see my black and deep desires." He thinks of murder before he speaks with his wife, so she only helped the process along and it wasn’t all her doing.
Justice is served in kind of an eye for an eye sort of way when Macbeth is killed by Macduff and Macbeth had not only killed Duncan, but he'd also had Macduff's family killed in order to punish Macduff. Macbeth's killing of the king was justified by his own ambition to get ahead in order to get the throne, but his killing of Macduff's family served no purpose. He was angry at Macduff and feared Macduff, not his family, so the killing Macduff's wife and children was senseless and unnecessary....